Sunday, June 21, 2015

Was Jesus Fatherless?

The Gospel of Mark represents the earliest surviving biography - if that what we should call it - of Jesus' life. It is often noted by commentators that Mark is either unaware of Joseph (of nativity fame) or simply fails to mention him. The most common solution given is that Joseph died while Jesus was a boy. Some have even conjectured the psychological profile of a young man who has taken on the responsibilities of breadwinning. But does this conjecture have merit in historical reconstruction?

First we should acknowledge that is was not uncommon for a man to die before his son reached the age of thirty. I've pointed out that, "If a child was fortunate enough to live to age ten, her/his chances of living to forty were roughly 60 percent. She or he would have a 50 percent chance of seeing the age of forty-five" (Wife of Jesus, 109). So we shouldn't be surprised that Joseph is not mentioned in Mark. Even so, this doesn't mean necessarily that Joseph died while Jesus was a boy. On the contrary, I argue:


We therefore should not assume that Jesus was fatherless. Nor should we conjecture that he carried the burden of a boy who had adulthood foisted upon him too early.

-anthony

7 comments:

  1. An alternate theory on Joseph presents the idea that he had a prior marriage and that four sons (James, Joses, Judas, & Simeon) - and possibly at least two daughters - were the products of said marriage, making these half-siblings of Jesus - who, of course, was Mary's (the second wife of Joseph) son. After two decades of research into the family of Jesus, I have presented a variation on this proposal in my new novel, "Miriamne the Magdala", with Joseph sireing James, Joses, Judas, and Simeon with his first wife. His marriage to Mary, who is already pregnant with Jesus (who's paternity I maintain is divine in nature) later produces two daughters - Salome Mary and Mara Elizabeth (younger sisters to Jesus and his elder half-brothers). These findings - though controversial - are substantiated by newer discoveries in the gnostic writings, the findings at the tomb at Talpiot, and by several notable biblical scholars who have written on this subject.
    JB Richards
    Author of "Miriamne the Magdala-The First Chapter in the Yeshua and Miri Novel Series"
    Website: http://www.miriandyeshuanovelseries.com
    Facebook: https://www.facebook.com/pages/Miriamne-the-Magdala-First-in-the-Series-of-the-Yeshua-Miri-Novels/206903979347028

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    1. Jeanne, the theory that you refer to is first argued in the fourth century CE. It is, however, assumed by the Protoevangelium of James. It seems to emerge from a high mariology (the Mother of Jesus) and the belief in Mary's perpetual virginity.

      -anthony

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  2. Jesus refers many times to God as "Father", apparently a good and loving one. I would have expected Jesus referring to God as "King", since the core of his message was God's Kingdom. Maybe this could confirm the fact that Jesus knew his father and that's why he insisted with such metaphor..

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    1. Anonymous, I think that the next step in your argument would have to account for this: "do not call anyone on earth 'father,' for you have one Father, and he is in heaven" (matt 23:9).
      -anthony

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    2. Thank you Anthony. Actually my argument, as poor as it can be, is that I find interesting how Jesus, while preaching the forthcoming Kingdom of God, refers to God as "father" (either directly or thru metaphors) more often than "king" or "Lord". Your example actually confirms what I'm saying, isn't it? If you're saying that I should provide my exegesis to Mt 23:9, and a coherent one, then I can try to play the game - even though a coherent exegesis of any Jesus' words is difficult, also for well attested sayings such as "love your enemies"..

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  3. Hi Anthony,
    Interesting. Have you thoroughly read Fatherless in Galilee by Andries van Aarde?

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